July 21, 2008
Immune System and HIV
Click on text version (scroll through each page to find answers).
1. What is the enemy?
2. What will it do when it enters a healthy host cell?
3. What does the macrophage do?
4. Once the helper T cell recognizes the virus fragments on the macrophage’s surface, what happens?
5. The chemicals released by the macrophage and helper T cells stimulate the production of what three things?
6. What is the job of the killer T cells?
7. The helper T cells stimulate the production of _____ cells, which produce millions of ___________________.
8. Antibodies are very _______________ about what they attack.
9. a. Attached antibodies acted as __________ that say, “Here’s on!” b. Here’s one of what?
10. Macrophages consume the viruses flagged with a __ __ __ b __ __ __ __ __.
11. How do the antibodies help the macrophages?
12. What do complements do?
13. After the battle, the numbers of ____________, _________________, _________________, ________________. and ___________________ decrease dramatically. What remains, though, are _________________ and ________________. If the virus ever enters the body again, these will quickly move into action and most likely wipe out the invader before it ever gains a stronghold.
14. What part of the immune system exhausts itself? What happens?
16. How does HIV get into the host cell?
17. Explain why non-progressors stay healthy despite being HIV positive?
Click on Viral Gene Transfer.
18. During transcription, DNA is copied into RNA? Is this what HIV does? Explain.
Click on Viral exit.
19. Why do the host cells die after thousands of HIV replicate and infect host cells?
Click on AIDS in Perspective at the bottom of the page.
20. Use the map to find out how many people are infected with HIV and AIDS in:
a. North America? b. Latin America? c. Sub-Saharan Africa? d. East Asia and Pacific?
21. How many people have been infected by HIV since the epidemic began?
22. What percent of HIV-infected people live in the developing world?
Click on Search for a Vaccine at the bottom of the page. According to Dr. Baltimore:
23. There are more people dying of AIDS than almost any other infectious disease, with __________________ and ________________ being in the same ballpark.
24. HIV is not native to the human species, and therefore it is continually ______________ in an effort to adapt. Does this mean it always stays the same or is it always changing?
July 21, 2008
Reproduction and Gender Lesson
1. Two _____ chromosomes in the nucleus of the original egg cell will cause an embryo to be a female, and a _____ and an ______ chromosome will determine a male.
Click on How Is Sex Determined? (Flash version)
2. What are gonads? Click on > next
3. A sperm cell may contain either an _____ chromosome or a _____ chromosome. Click on the little red star:*
4. What happens if the Y chromosome is missing the SRY gene? Click on > next
5. How big is the embryo at three weeks old? Click on > next
6. From week 5 until week 7, the genital ridge is similar in _____ _________ _____ ________________. Click on > next
7. What will primitive germ cells become later? Click on > next: male
8. What will happen if the SRY gene is turned on? Click on > back; Click on > next: female
9. In week 8, what are beginning to form in the female embryo? Click on > next
10. During week 9, the labioscrotal area does fuse in the male embryo…..true…..false
11. The Mullerian ducts will later differentiate into the __________, the upper vagina and the _____________. Click on > next
12. a. How many follicles exist at birth?
- These remaining follicles will enlarge to form the primitive ______ cells.
- Are any new egg cells produced after birth? Click on the blue dot on the bottom of the screen marked 8 for the Male.
13. Testosterone will cause the external genitalia to develop into a ___________. Click on > next
14. During week 9, the labioscrotal area will fuse to form the _________. Click on > next
15. After puberty, the testes will produce ________ _______________ sperm daily.
16. One out of every _______ births result in tiny errors during the stages of fetal sex differentiation.
17. Read through the different conditions. Choose 4 to write about. Describe the genetic and/or chemical basis of the condition and the symptoms (how it affects the body).
July 18, 2008
Do the following questions on Nutrition, Digestion, and Excretion:
Nutrition Label Go to http://www.fda.gov/Food/ResourcesForYou/Consumers/NFLPM/ucm274593.htm#twoparts
1. When looking at the serving size, it is important to compare it to what?
2. If you eat the whole package of macaroni and cheese, you should multiply all of the nutrient numbers on the label by ______.
3. If you eat a food with 110 Calories from fat, and it has 250 total Calories, that means that _________ of the calories come from fat. BEWARE OF ANY FOOD WHERE MORE THAN ONE-THIRD (33%) COME FROM FAT!!
4. Eating too many calories per day is linked to being _____________ and ____________.
5. List five things that can lead to heart disease, some cancers, or high blood pressure.
6. It is very important to keep your intake of __________________ fat, ________ fats, and _______________ as low as possible to have a good balanced diet.
7. List five nutrients that many Americans do not get enough of in their diet.
8. Getting enough calcium can reduce the risk of ___________________, where bones become brittle and break as one ages.
9. What does %DV stand for?
10. Your total fat for the whole day should be less than _________% DV.
11. Thinking question: Let’s say you find a candy bar that says it has 50% DV of saturated fat. Is it a good idea (in terms of nutrition) to eat the whole candy bar? Explain
12. When looking at %DV, what is the general guide to help you know if it’s low or high?
13. If you eat the whole package of macaroni and cheese, is this a good idea in terms of your daily fat intake?
Explain Click on Comparison Example #1
14. The labels show two kinds of milk- one is “Reduced Fat,” the other is chocolate “Nonfat” milk. Each serving size is one cup. Which has more calories? Which is higher in fat and saturated fat?
Click on Comparison Example #2
15. The labels show two kinds of milk- one is “Reduced Fat,” the other is chocolate “Nonfat” milk. Each serving size is one cup. Which has more calcium?
16. What is the purpose of the excretory system.
17. What are the primary organs of excretion?
18. Lungs get rid of waste _________.
19. Dead cells and sweat are removed from the body through the _______, which is part of the ___________________ system.
20. Liquid waste is removed from the body through the _____________.
21. The kidneys filter out unwanted _________, minerals, and a nitrogen-rich molecule called ________; these wastes form a liquid called ___________.
22. If your kidneays are severely diseased, your blood needs to be filtered through the process of d__ __ __ __ s __ s.
23. Healthy people can live comfortable with only one kidney ……..true…….false. Go to http://users.rcn.com/jkimball.ma.ultranet/BiologyPages/K/Kidney.html
24. Kidneys receive ____-____% of the total arterial blood pumped by the heart.
25. Each kidney contains from one to two million ___________.
26. In the nephron, the Bowman’s capsule is surrounded by the glomerulus, which is a ________________ network.
27. The nephron makes urine by doing what three steps?
28. Scroll down to the table on the web site. Urine contains 1.8 g/100 ml of ________. Urine should not contain any __________, __________ ________, or proteins.
29. When you are severely dehydrated, the pituitary gland will produce ___ ___ ___. This will cause your urine to have an extremely high concentration of ________ – as much as ________ times that of the blood.
30. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by what two symptoms?
31. Diabetes insipidus can be caused by mutant genes or insufficient secretion of __ __ __.
Digestive System Do your own research, either from your textbook and/or the internet, to answer the following:
32. What types of molecules get digested in the stomach? 33. What types of molecules get digested in the small intestine?
34. How do the digested food molecules get absorbed by the small intestine? – draw a diagram to show capillaries and microvilli to explain this!!
July 17, 2008
HUMAN CIRCULATORY SYSTEM WEBSITE QUESTIONS
Answer the following questions in the front of your notebook. You do NOT need to copy the questions.
Click on Launch Interactive. Click Track. Click Step Thru.
1. Oxygen-poor blood goes from the body into the __________ ______________.
2. The right ventricle pumps the blood to the ____________, where the blood releases waste gases and picks up __________________.
3. The ______________ _________________ pumps the oxygen-rich blood to all parts of the body.
4. Which chambers are on the top of the heart? Atria or ventricles?
5. Which chambers are on the bottom of the heart? Atria or ventricles?
At the bottom, click on the FACTS link.
6. Where is the heart located in the chest?
7. How big is your heart as compared to your fist?
8. Which muscles work harder, your leg muscles when you are sprinting or your heart when it’s pumping?
9. How big is a capillary as compared to a human hair?
10. How far does your blood travel in one day?
11. Find the photograph of the “coronary artery affected by atherosclerosis.”
a. What 4 things make up the plaque that is blocking the artery?
b. Do some research on the internet to find out what causes atherosclerosis in humans.
12. Go back to the above site. Find the photograph under the one from #11. The heart attack was caused by heart muscle that was deprived of _________________.
13. The body’s circulatory system really has three distinct parts: _____________________, _____________________, _____________________ .
Click on pulmonary circulation.
14. Pulmonary circulation is the movement of blood from the heart, to the , and back to the heart again.
Click on circulatory system. Click on systemic circulation.
15. Systemic circulation supplies nourishment to ____________________________________, with the exception of the heart and lungs because they have their own systems.
During systemic circulation, blood passes through the _______________. This phase of systemic circulation is known as renal circulation. During this phase, the kidneys filter much of the ___________ from the blood. Blood also passes through the small intestine during systemic circulation. This phase is known as portal circulation. During this phase, the blood from the small intestine collects in the portal vein which passes through the liver. The liver filters _____________ from the blood, storing them for later.
16. List 3 diseases and 8 other effects of smoking.
17. Why is it difficult to quit smoking?
18. List 3 ill (bad) effects of secondhand smoke on adults and children.
19. What are the ill (bad) effects of chewing tobacco.
Click on What’s In A Cigarette?
20. List four chemicals in cigarettes. Do research on the internet to find out why they are bad for your health.
Click on Peer Pressure
21. List three things you can say instead of “no” when someone pressures you to smoke.
22. Describe the difference between healthy lung tissue, lungs with emphysema, and diseased lung tissue.
July 17, 2008
Write the answers in your notebook. You do NOT need to copy the questions.
1. The nervous system is divided into the ________________ nervous system and the __________________ nervous system.
2. a. The central nervous system is divided into two parts: the ___________ and the _____________ ____________. The brain has about 100 _______________ nerve cells (neurons) and __________________ of “support cells” called glia.
b. Click on nerve cells (neurons) . Scroll down until you find “Pseudounipolar cells.” True or False: All neurons will have only one axon.
c. What is the difference between sensory neurons and motor neurons?
3. The brain to body ratio of humans is ________ times greater than that of the stegosaurus (a type of dinosaur).
4. a. The peripheral nervous system is divided into two major parts: the ___________ nervous system and the ______________ nervous system.
b. The somatic nervous system sends sensory information to the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) and motor nerve fibers that go to _______________ muscle.
c. Copy the picture of the Central Nervous System (Brain/Spinal Cord, cell body, axon, effector (muscle)).
d. The autonomic nervous system controls ______________ _______________ of the viscera (_______________ _____________) and glands.
e. What is one difference between the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system?
f. The enteric nervous system has neurons that connect to the viscera (gastrointestinal tract, _____________, _______________).
5. Looking at the table titled “Divisions of the Nervous System,” does the cerebellum belong to the peripheral nervous system or the central nervous system? The cerebellum is in what part of the brain? m____encephalon
6. a. The brain is divided into two halves, called ________________. Each hemisphere communicates with the other through the ___________ _______________. Click here.
b. Make a simple drawing of the corpus collosum (in green).
7. a. Scroll down to Brain Structures. Which part of the brain is responsible for movement, balance, and posture?
b. Which part of the brain is responsible for your emotions?
c. Which part of the brain is responsible for memory and learning?
d. The midbrain has what four functions?
e. The cerebral cortex has what five functions?
f. The brain stem has what three functions? Where is the brain stem located?
g. What are the five functions of the hypothalamus? The hypothalamus is the size of only a ________.
8. Scroll down to the yellow picture of the brain. Copy this picture in your notebook, including all 8 labels.
July 16, 2008
Click on the links to answer the questions:
1. Easter Island is found in the South __________.
2. What began soon after the Rapanui arrived and was largely over by 1600?
3. List 6 birds that went extinct.
4. How did the rats affect a “comeback”
5. When was the last moai erected?
6. What are the “chillingly obvious” parallels between Easter Island and our entire planet today?
7. Describe each country’s (China’s, India’s, and Kenya’s) tactics (either intentional or not) at slowing population growth.
8. Which tactics have been most successful and why?
9. Which tactics are most controversial and why?
10. Describe the predicted negative trends in a) Japan and Europe, b) China and India, c) Africa.
11. How will an improvement in women’s status in India help with the population problem (the Population Campaigns link will help with this).
12. Which country has the largest population?
13. Which country will be doubled the fastest?
14. Which country has the highest fertility rate?
15. Which country has the greatest rural percentage?
16. Which country uses the most energy per capita?
17. Which has the highest infant mortality?
18. Which has the highest female illiteracy?
19. Where would you most like to live and why?
20. Where would you least like to live and why?
21. Describe 5 events/trends/diseases/advances in the last 2000 years that have either greatly increased or decreased human population growth.
22. a. Where will most of the population growth occur in the future?
b. What challenges will these countries face?
23. Do Population Trends in the Developed World #’s #1, 2, 6, 7. Copy the questions, and click on the Answers link to get the right answers.
You will find answers to the following questions in the Answers section of the website:
24. Why is “replacement-level fertility” 2.1 and not 2.0?
25. In your opinion, why is there such a drastic difference in the life expectancy of a woman in Japan (84) vs. Kenya (46)?
26. What will the payroll tax rate be in Japan and Italy in 2030? Why will it need to be so high?
27. Why doesn’t the U.S. face dramatic population declines confronting other nations?
28. Do Population Trends in the Developing World #’s 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. 8. Copy the questions, and click on the Answers link to get the right answers.
You will find answers to the following questions in the Answers section of the website:
29. The sharp increase in life expectancy throughout the developing world in the mid-20th century gave rise to the _____________________ ________________ of the latter half of the century.
30. Why haven’t populations decreased despite decreases in fertility rates in many countries?
31. Less than _______ percent of married women in sub-Saharan Africa use modern contraceptive methods. In some developing nations, such as Brazil and Thailand, contraceptive use nears ______ percent, largely due to government funding of ____________ _____________ services.
32. Urbanization will create a host of ________________________ problems, since consumption patterns will increasingly mirror those in the developed world.
33. Do The Environmental Challenge #’s 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 9. Copy the questions, and click on the Answers link to get the right answers.
You will find answers to the following questions in the Answers section of the website:
34. List 3 things that we consume (part of our high levels of consumption) in the developed world.
35. Why does our consumption in the developed world affect environments in the less developed world?
36. Water scarcity may become a cause of ________________________ ______________, especially in water-scarce regions like the ____________ _________ and ____________ ______________.
37. Roughly ______ million people are undernourished in the developed world, but _______ million people are undernourished in the developing world.
38. Some estimates of carrying capacity are: ____ to ___ billion people living in prosperity to ____ billion people fed on minimum rations. Both population and consumption are almost certain to rist, but hopefully new _________________ will be developed and adopted that allow us to live sustainably.
39. Which four countries have the highest population densities?
40. The costs of greater urbanization include a) consumption of vast amounts of _________, b) ____ pollution, and c) _________ pollution.
41. In the future, we may be able to replenish water tables with new water-saving _______________ methods, ______________________ crops that require less water, __________________ harvesting, and ____________ ______________________ campaigns.
42. Which four countries are the greatest polluters (of carbon-based greenhouse gases)?
43. Almost _____ of the forests that once covered Earth have disappeared, mostly due to aggressive ______________ and agricultural ____________. It is estimated that nearly ______ percent of the world’s remaining forests are endangered.
44. Scientists predict that more than _______ of the world’s coral reefs may be gone by the year _______, thereby causing the extinction of ______________ of animal species and the disappearance of many __________ whose shorelines are protected by reefs.
July 15, 2008
Click on THE FOOD CHAIN.
1. In the example on the web site, the cheetah is the __________________ and the zebra is the _________.
2. What does a food chain explain?
3. Every living thing in a food chain is either a _____________ or a _________.
4. How do producers obtain energy?
5. How do consumers get energy?
Click Back. Click on THE HUNT IS ON.
6. The cheetah leaves the ground twice when it is running – once with its legs completely _______________, then with its legs tightly ________ beneath its body. How can the cheetah do this?
7. How does a tail aid the cheetah?
8. If one jackal closes in on a springbok, the other jackals ________________ their animals and focus instead on the single _______.
Click Back. Click on WHAT’S FOR DINNER.
9. What is the word for plant-eating animals?
10. List three herbivores in Etosha.
11. The zebra’s feces help ________________ the ground and causes new grass to grow.
12. The dead zebra can feed jackals or _____________. Dead flesh is called ______________.
13. The bones of the zebra get broken down by ______________.
14. Only the largest plant-eating consumers, such as __________ and _____________, avoid becoming prey for predators, though young animals of both species are sometimes victims of large __________.
Click Back. Click on ANTHRAX.
15. What causes Anthrax?
16. How do animals get the disease?
17. What do elephants do to protect themselves from the heat and to ward off insects?
18. Elephants sometimes eat anthrax, which can lay ___________ in the dust for a long time.
19. When gravel roads were constructed to reach Etosha National Park, large gravel pits were dug close to the routes. These pits filled with ___________, and the water became alkaline (opposite of acidic) due to the _____________ _________ present. Anthrax thrives under _______________ conditions, and many herbivores died.
20. Describe what happened to the wildebeest, zebra, and lion populations as a result of the anthrax.
Click on More.
21. Why are young male lions expelled from their birth pride?
22. Why did the lion population drop from 500 to 240?
23. A cooperative relationship between park wardens and the __________ is essential.
24. Many lions have FIV, or ______________ _______________________ ____________, which is similar to HIV in humans. Etosha’s lions may be used to restock lions in the Serengeti, where ______ percent of lions have FIV.
Click on More.
25. Since wild dogs are profoundly ___________ in their behavior, efforts to re-introduce them have resulted in the dogs dying either from ___________ or falling prey to _________.
26. Poaching is a threat to the rhinoceros and the elephant. People take the horns from the rhinoceros, which deprives a rhinoceros of its natural _______________, so it becomes defenseless to _______ attacks.
27. Write a paragraph (at least 3 sentences) describing what you learned from the Etosha web site today.
July 15, 2008
- What is the greenhouse effect?
- What would the temperature of the Earth be without a natural greenhouse effect?
- Are greenhouse gases increasing?
- Click on the link “420,000 years” – it shows a graph. Describe the trend in the graph (throughout Earth’s history, from 400,000 years ago until the present, the Carbon dioxide, methane, and temperature levels have….”
- According to the information to the right of the graph, what is the present, post-industrial atmospheric level of CO2 is around ______ ppmv, which on the graph would be off the ___________.
- Is there any scientific debate about whether or not human activity as been increasing the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?
- By how many degrees has the climate warmed over the last 25 years?
- Click on the link Global surface temperatures. Describe the trend in the graph from 1880 until
- Why does the human-enhanced greenhouse effect cause cooling in higher parts of the atmosphere?
- There are other, indirect indicators of global warming such as boring a hole in the ground and taking the ground temperature, measuring how much land is covered with snow, and recording how much the _____________ have receded (______________ recession).
- El Ninos are not related to global warming, because they have been present for _______________ or maybe _______________ of years. However, global warming may enhance El Ninos, and El Ninos have been more ______________ and ______________ in recent decades.
- Is the climate becoming more variable or extreme on a global scale? On regional scales?
13. How does an actual greenhouse (for plants) work?
14. Copy the diagram of the Earth’s Greenhouse Effect (including labels!!)
July 14, 2008
Evolution Lessons – Riddle of the Bones
- Lucy and other fossils reveal that more than 3 million years ago, a human ancestor walked upright …………true……..false
- What two kinds of evidence show that Australopithecus afarensis walked upright?
- What parts of the fossilized body reveals how old the person was at death?
- Lucy’s species is sexually dimorphic. What does that mean?
- What were the average heights for males and females of Australopithecus afarensis?
- Which living thing does our human ancestor, Australopithecus afarensis, most closely resemble?
- Which was the most critical find in determining whether or not the fossils found at Laetoli and Hadar belonged to the same species?
- How many million years ago did
- the First Family live?
- the Hadar skull exist?
- Lucy live?
- Laetoli footprints get left in the volcanic ash?
- A significant advance in flying ability came with the evolution of the ________.
- What is an alula?
- What is the oldest-known bird fossil?
- List 2 features of Archaeopteryx that are like those of a dinosaur, and 2 features that are like those of birds.
- What is a therapod?
- List three bird characteristics that were present in therapods before birds evolved.
- Feathers evolved in therapods before birds……..true……..false.
- What are two possible functions of early feathers?
- Most of the bird lineages that arose during the Cretaceous period ______ _____, but some of them survived and evolved into the birds of today.
July 14, 2008
Evolution Lesson – Mass Extinctions and Deep Time
b. Our solar system was formed from __________________ dust.
2. What kind of bombardment started 4,500 mya and lasted 500 million years?
3. What were formed 4,200 mya?¦lt;br /> 4. Volcanic rock in Greenland has minerals with telltale signs of past biological activity: Carbon _____________ ratios that occur only if living things are present. These rocks are __________ mya.
5. There is evidence that Photosynthesizing bacteria started to increase (because they grow _____________ and reproduce _____________ than their competitors) _________ mya.
6. The oldest fossils are from __________ mya. These fossils are found in dense mats called ___________________, where photosynthesizing bacteria lived on the top, and _________ _______________ lived below.
7. The first small _______________ were not formed until 3,400 mya.
8. Scientists found traces of oil in rocks from __________ mya; these oils are found only in __________________, not bacteria.
9. 1,900 mya oxygen levels in the atmosphere reached ___________ percent.
10. The oldest fossil evidence of multicellular animals are the fossils of _________________ creatures that lived ________ mya.
11. The oldest __________________ fossils are from 540 mya.
12. The first chordates, or animals with a _____________, evolved ________ mya.
13. a. The first mass extinction happened ________ mya; ______ – ______ percent of marine genera (kinds of living things) became extinct.
b. The second mass extinction happened ________mya; _______ percent of marine invertebrate families and ______ percent of genera go extinct.
c. The third mass extinction happened ________ mya; 50-55 percent of marine invertebrate genera and ______-______ percent of species go extinct.¦lt;br /> d. the fourth mass extinction happened ________ mya; 90 % of all species went extinct!!!
14. The Cambrian explosion happened 530 mya. Describe the Cambrian explosion.
15. When did the first land plants appear?
16. When did the first fishes appear?
17. Which group of animals were the first to adapt to live on land?
18. _________ mya amphibians were the first four-legged animals on land.
19. 280 mya, ______________ supercontinent formed. North America, South America, Europe, Asia, Australia, Africa, etc. were all together in one continent…………………true…….false
July 9, 2008
Sickle Cell Anemia, Evidence of Evolution through Embryos, Genetic Drift
You do NOT need to copy the questions!!
Watch the video that has the photo of the red blood cells. Quicktime allows you to click captions “on” in case there is a problem with the sound on your computer. If you have any problems with watching the video, then do #1-6 and #12-15 at home.
1. What causes malaria?
2. Malaria destroys human _______ blood cells.
3. In West Africa most children are infected with _______________.
4. For most children, the disease is not fatal because of their G E ___ ____ S.
5. For the couple in the photos, their daughter Fahti has inheritied ______ copies of the sickle cell gene.
6. The more diverse people are the more likely that population is to s _ r _ _ v e.
Now read through “A Mutation Story”
7. Malaria kills how many people every year?
8. If someone inherits two mutant copies of the hemoglobin gene, the sickled cells become stuck in small ____________ __________________, causing fever, swelling, and tissue damage that can lead to ______________.
9. In some regions, as much as _____ percent of the population carries at least one HbS gene. This is because HbS carriers are resistant to _______________.
10. How is the prevalence of the sickle cell gene also a disadvantage?
11. Draw a Punnett Square to show the offspring of two carrier parents (Ss x Ss). S= normal; s=sickle cell
Watch the video that has the photo of the fetus.
12. “A human arm at this stage still looks like a pig’s embryonic front ____.”
13. “Bird embryos at this stage show extraordinary similarities to those of __________.”
14. “Each species starts with a shared _______________, but takes a distinct course.”
15. Name three of the animals shown in the video.
Now read through “Common Past, Different Paths”
16. What is development?
17. What do “evo-devo” researchers investigate?
18. Name four features that four-legged animals have during their developmental embryonic stages.
19. “Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny” means that the process of _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________.
20. The Amish carry an unusual concentration of gene mutations because they have a c__________ p________________.
21. When a small part of a population moves to a new locale, or when the population is reduced to a small size because of some environmental ___________, the genes of the “founders” of the new society are disproportionately ______________ in the resulting population.
22. If individuals in the group tend to marry within it, there’s a greater likelihood that the ____________ genes of the founders will come together in the cells that produce offspring.
23. The founder effect is an extreme example of “genetic drift.” Genes occurring at a certain frequency in the larger population will occur at a ______________ frequency — _______or ________often — in a smaller subset of that population.
July 9, 2008
- Darwin thought _________________ __________________ operated over vast periods of time and couldn’t be observed, but Peter and Rosemary Grant observed natural selection during their research in the Galapagos Islands.
- Where did the Grants do their research (what island)?
- The small birds, or f __ __ __ __ __ __, that the Grants studied struggle for ___________, or actually different types of ___________.
- What factor has influenced the availability of food on Daphne Major?
- The size and shape of the finches’ beaks are ______ that vary in adapting to environmental ______ or changes in those niches.
- Click on the word niche. What is the definition of niche?
- Very Important (California State Standard of what you need to know before you graduate!!): Body and beak variation occurs ______________. This means that variation, or changes, in a living thing’s body are not planned. They result from random changes in D __ __, or m u ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___ ___. (this is not on the web site; you may need to ask me if you do not remember this from first semester)
- The birds with the best-suited bodies and beaks for the particular environment survive and pass along the successful ___________ from one generation to another through natural selection. This is like in our hand, fork, knife, spoon and bean activity, where the most successful trait, or the ______ trait, got passed down from one generation to another.
- a. After the severe __________ in 1977, vegetation withered and died. The small, soft __________ were quickly eaten by birds, and the large, tough ________ were the ones left.
b. Describe which type of birds could eat these seeds and why?
c. What happened to the smaller finches? What does “perished” mean?
10. The big-beaked finches survived and were able to _________________, and the offspring after the 1977 drought tended to have ____________ __________.
11. a. Then, after the rain of 1984-85, there were more of what type of seeds?
b. Therefore, the birds with ___________ _________ were better adapted to eat these types of seeds, and they survived better and produced the most __________.
Scroll up to the top of the page, and click on Document
12. Look at the top graph. In 1976, the average beak depth for the birds was
A. 8.1 mm B. 9.4 mm C. 10.7 mm D. 12.0 mm
13. Look at the second graph. In 1978, the average beak depth for the birds was
A. 7.9 mm B. 9.5 mm C. 10.1 mm D. 11.6 mm
14. Explain the difference in the average beak depth from 1976 to 1978.
15. Look at Figure 2 (the third graph). This graph shows a couple things:
a. The midparent bill depth and the offspring bill depth are
A. not related. B. directly related. C. inversely related.
b. Are there more dark circles (1978 population) at the bottom of the graph or the top of the graph? Why?
16. Write a paragraph describing what you learned today.
July 8, 2008
Biochemistry and CellsAlive Internet Questions
Each blue link is a multiple choice question. Click on #2,4,6,8 and answer those problems. Write out the answers AND DRAW THE MOLECULES.
Go to www.cellsalive.com
Do ALL of the questions below. You do NOT have to copy the questions.
Click on Cell Biology. Click on How Big is a …? Click on Start the Animation. Click on E.coli next to the picture.
1. How big is E. coli? About _______ micro___________.
2. Click on Ebola virus. How big is Ebola virus? About ________ nano____________.
3. A micrometer is 1/1000th of a meter. A nanometer is 1/1000th of a micrometer.
So a nanometer is 1/______________th of a meter.
4. Click Back. Go to Cell Models. What is the difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells? (whch ones are larger? Which have special mechanisms for packaging and transport?)
5. Click on Plant Cell. Copy the drawing of the plant cell in your notebook.
6. a. The nucleus contains the _________.
b. The DNA is similar in every cell of the body, but some genes are turned on or off in different cells. True or False?
7. a. What are the two different kinds of Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER)?
b. The rough ER appears rough due to presence of ___________________.
c. Smooth ER is important in the making of ______________
and membrane _______________.
d. Rough ER is important in the making of other _______________.
8. What is the function of the mitochondria?
9. What is the function of the Golgi Apparatus?
10. a. The cell membrane is a double layer of ______________.
b. What is the function of the cell membrane?
c. What are the three kinds of proteins in the cell membrane?
11. a. Which types of cells have cell walls?
b. What is the function of the cell wall?
12. What is the function of the chloroplast?
13. There are generally more lysosomes in plant cells compared to animal cells. True or False?
14. Go to Take a Quiz. Click on Quiz on Cell Biology. Do only #1,5,6,7. Copy all the questions and answers in your notebook. (only the right answer).
July 8, 2008
PART 2: COPY THESE QUESTIONS ON YOUR PAPER AND THEN ANSWER THEM
Click on Chemistry. Click on Basic Chemistry for Understanding Biology.
7. What is the abbreviation (the symbol) for Carbon? ___ for Sodium? ____
8. What are the 4 elements make up 99% of living organisms?
9. Define: a. element b. atom
10. Copy the picture of the Oxygen atom and the Carbon atom. Label the electrons.
11. How many bonds with other atoms can Hydrogen form? Oxygen? Carbon?
Click on <Previous. Click on Chemical bonds and attractive forces.
12. Copy the picture of the Structural Formula and Covalent Bond Diagram for Methane.
13. What kind of molecule is insulin? P __ O __ __ __ __.
Click on Main Page of Tutorial. Click on The Chemistry of Water.
14. Water is a “polar” molecule. What does this mean?
15. Copy the picture of the two water molecules. Label the H bond (Hydrogen bond) between them.
16. If a solution (a liquid) is an acid (acidic), it has a pH of _____ – _____.
17. If a solution (a liquid) is a base (basic), it has a pH of _____ – _____.
18. Water is neutral, so it has a pH of _____.
July 8, 2008
Click on Making Vaccines (244K) Flash version.
Click on the box on the top left.
1. To create a vaccine for smallpox, you begin with the smallpox virus…True False
2. What does the fluid that you collect from the cow’s udder contain?
3. To make the vaccine, the cowpox viruses need to be separated from the rest of the fluid like _____________ and other impurities.
4. By taking the vaccine, the immune system will “remember” what it looks like and will quickly ___________________________________________.
5. We no longer make smallpox vaccine by using live cows; now we use biotetechnology…True…False
Now click on the second box from the left to make another vaccine.
6. What is a live-attenuated vaccine?
7. A live-attenuated vaccine needs to contain a virus similar to the disease-causing virus, but not so similar that it brings on the ________________ itself.
8. The virus is grown at low temperature so that these special strains (types) of the virus will grow _______ enough in humans to allow the immune system to eliminate it before it spreads.
9. Live-attenuated vaccines are used to protect the body against what 4 diseases?
Now click on the third box from the left to make another vaccine.
10. What is the goal in creating a killed vaccine?
11. What instrument is used to separate the polio virus from the tissue culture?
12. Describe three ways that viruses or bacteria are inactivated for use in a vaccine. Which way is used to inactivate polio?
13. Why do some vaccines require booster shots?
14. Killed vaccines are used to prevent which 5 diseases?
Now click on the fourth box from the left.
15. What is the goal with a toxoid vaccine?
16. What causes tetanus disease?
17. To produce tetanus vaccine, the ______________ molecules must be separated from the bacteria and the growth medium.
18. What chemicals are used to decrease the harmful effects of the toxins?
19. What two other vaccines are added to the tetanus vaccine to stimulate a strong immune response?
20. These toxoid vaccines do not produce a full immune response. What is added to maintain the immunity?
Now click on the box on the far right.
21. What is the goal of genetic vaccines/naked-DNA vaccines?
22. What is the technique used to make many copies of a gene?
23. What is a vector?
On the same website, click on the second box from the right.
24. In a subunit vaccine, it can contain _____________________________________.
25. What techniques will you use to make the vaccine for Hepatitis B?
26. What will the yeast cell do as it grows?
27. Once the vaccine is given, the immune system will attack the _________________.
28. Why is there no possibility of the vaccine causing the disease?
29. What is another example of a subunit vaccine? To what group of people is it administered?
30. How is the smallpox vaccine different from other vaccines?
31. The smallpox vaccine is effective from _____ to _____ years and sometimes for more than _____ years.
32. What can be done if someone is exposed to smallpox before they are vaccinated?
33. Describe in detail 2 risks associated with the smallpox vaccine.
34. Describe what is being done to protect Americans and health care workers.
July 7, 2008
Genetic Engineering Lesson
1. How have humans been engineering plants for the last 10,000 years?
2. How was corn first produced?
3. These old methods rely on the _____________ _____________ of all of a plant’s tens of thousands of genes.
4. Today, a scientist can change the genes of a plant quickly by ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________.
Click on the corn picture where it says “Selective Breeding” to the right.
5. Why wouldn’t farmers eat the best of their seeds?
6. List three things that a farmer might try to gradually change through selective breeding.
Click BEGIN and try to gradually increase the size of your corn crops. When you’ve done so correctly, it will say “CONGRATULATIONS.” Keep trying until you do it correctly.
7. Describe what you did to increase the size of the corn.
Click on “HTML Version” next the picture on the right.
Note: Bt is a type of Bacteria. A vector in this case is a plasmid that can jump from one bacteria cell to another.
8. The red in the circle is Bt (Bacteria) ________. The blue circle is a _________. In addition to the Bt DNA, a gene to make a plant resistant to a ______________ has also been added. A herbicide is a weed killer. Why would a farmer want his or her crop plants to be resistant to weed killer (herbicide)?
9. In Step 2, the vector is inside an Agrobacterium cell, which will transfer its DNA into ____________ cells.
10. In Step 3, the Agrobacterium grows in the growth _____________, and c e _ _ s with more copies of the vector are produced.
11. By adding small pieces of a tomato’s plant leaf, the DNA of the _____________ enter the cells of the leaf. The vector’s DNA becomes integrated (combined) with the ____________ cells’ DNA.
12. In Step 5, the plant cells are moved from a bacteria growth medium to a growth medium that is good for _____________.
13. In Step 6, the plant cuttings (baby plants) are sprayed with herbicide, so only those plants that received the ______________-_______________ gene will survive. If the plants have the _______________-______________ gene, they must have the ____ gene too.
14. In Step 8, you add a pest, like a _______________, to the plant. If the plant took up the Bt gene, the pest will _______.
Scroll to the top of the page. In the top right box, click on “what’s for dinner?”
Click on “HTML Version” on the right.
15. Describe 4 different uses of biotechnology/genetic engineering that you did not know about listed in this page.
Click on “viewpoints” on the top right of the page.
16. Describe 3 opinions on the safety of genetically modified foods according to scientists and professionals.
Describe your opinion on the safety of these foods.
July 3, 2008
Click on View. Click on What is DNA? Click Next until you see the DNA HELIX.
1. Draw this in your notebook (the DNA helix)
2. What does DNA stand for?
3. Scientists call the twisted ladder shape the “________ ________.”
4. What are the special rules for how the alphabet pieces (A,G,C,T, actually called ‘bases’) join together?
5. What do genes tell the cell to make?
6. Give an example of what proteins enable a cell to do.
Click on What is a Gene?
7. What is a gene?
Click Next twice.
8. What is the job of the protein hemoglobin?
Click Next to go inside the woman’s arm.
9. The HEMOGLOBIN MOLECULE is made of two main hemoglobin proteins, and ____________ (shown in blue) binds in the middle.
10. What disorder can result if hemoglobin is mutated?
Click on View.
Click on OVERVIEW.
Scroll through “slide” 1-12 to answer the questions:
11. Why can’t the entire strand of DNA travel outside the nucleus?
12. Instead an enzyme makes an _______ copy of the DNA code of the single gene encoding the protein being produced. This first step in protein production is called ______________.
13. The second step of protein production is a process called _______________.
14. The code of the mRNA is translated by an organelle into the proper order of _________ _______ to form a protein chain.
Click on Transcription and click through all 12 slides to answer the following questions.
15. During transcription, an _________ copy of the gene is made which carries the encoded information to the _________________________.
16. What does the promoter do?
17. What does the coding region do?
18. What does the termination sequence do?
19. What two things does the RNA polymerase enzyme do?
20. Once the RNA polymerase molecule binds to the DNA strand, the DNA double helix _____________.
21. As RNA polymerase reads each ________________________, it brings in the _______________________ nucleotide and bonds them together forming the mRNA strand. The nucleotides break free from the DNA, and the DNA folds back into a ____________ ______________.
22. By folding back on itself, the mRNA prevents __________________ from continuing and both the RNA polymerase and thee mRNA strand fall off the DNA strand.
Click on Translation and click through all 23 slides to answer the following questions.
23. During translation, the mRNA is read and ____________ ____________ are linked together into a protein.
24. The sequence of the mRNA is read by organelles present in the cytoplasm, _________________________.
25. The ribosome reads the sequence ___________ nucleotides at a time. Each group of ___________ nucleotides is a single _____________.
26. The amino acids are transferred to the ribosome by _____________ molecules, which have an __________________________ at one end and an _____________ ______________ on the other.
27. What dictates which amino acid the tRNA will carry to the ribosome?
28. There are ________ amino acids in a cell which bind to between _____ and ______ tRNA molecules.
29. The anticodon section of tRNA binds to the __ __ __ __ __ section of the mRNA.
30. The ribosome promotes a chemical reaction to join the two amino acids with a _______________ bond.
31. New amino acids continue to be joined by peptide bonds until the ribosome reads the __________ codon, which indicates the ________ of the gene.
32. An amino acid chain is usually composed of __________________ of amino acids.
33. The amino acid chain folds up into a 3-D structure dictated by the ____________ of amino acids. This unique structure gives each protein its unique _______________ and allows it to do _________.
34. Can more than one ribosome bind and read the mRNA strand at a single time? How does this benefit your cell?
35. Write three new things you learned about each process that you didn’t learn from just the overview (for a total of 6 complete sentences!!).
July 3, 2008
Do all 10 problems. You MUST do a Punnett Square for each problem, or no credit. For the problems where there is already a Punnett Square done for you, you must circle the box or boxes in the square that lead you to the answer.
Do only the first 4 problems (the monohybrid problems). Number these problems #11-14. Just write the answer.
There are 10 problems (some with multiple parts), but you will only do 4 of them (number these #15-18):
Monohybrid Cross – Copy the Punnett Square and the ratios of the offspring (for example, ½ of offspring can hear, ½ of offspring are deaf).
Testcross – Copy the 3 Punnett Squares and the ratios of the offspring.
Incomplete Dominance – Copy the Punnett Square and the ratios of the offspring.
Scroll down and do
Sex (It’s a Phenotype, Not a Chromosome!) – Copy the Punnett square and the ratios of the offspring.
July 3, 2008
Click on View to watch the video. Remember, if you want to sign in, your username is “galileo” and password “student”.
1. Jodi has a history of _____________ cancer in her family.
2. Jodi had her __________________ removed to decrease the chance of getting cancer.
3. One company in San Francisco that does genetic testing is called _______ ______________.
4. List three things you learn from the rest of the video.
Read the Background Essay.
5. We now have the ability to map out our DNA down to the last A,T,C, or G to trace our ________________________.
6. Genetic testing and counseling make it possible to estimate what?
7. With these estimates, we are also faced with ethical and moral dilemmas. What is one example of this type of dilemma?
8. Biologists can use human tissue samples to sequence DNA and determine any __________________ or ________________.
9. Genetic counselors and biologists can predict peoples’ susceptibility to certain conditions. List 4 examples of genetic conditions.
10. List four things that a genetic counselor might suggest to a patient based on their genetic testing?
11. How much can genetic counseling cost for someone without insurance coverage?
12. Why would someone decide to pay for the genetic counseling themselves instead of having their insurance company pay for it?
Discussion Questions (your opinions):
13. Given the potential risks, do you think that genetic testing is a good thing, or a bad thing? Give at least three reasons to support you answer.
14. What things can genetic counselors do to help make the counseling process easier for patients?
15. Would you like to have your DNA tested?
16. Why would people want to keep genetic information a secret?
July 1, 2008
Just write the answers; you do NOT need to copy the questions.
1. The two copies of each chromosome are called __________________ _____________________.
2. During meiosis the cell will divide to produce _____ haploid gametes. Haploid means having only one _____________________________________.
3. What happens during DNA synthesis?
4. The two sister chromatids stay attached through what structure?
5. Synapsis happens during mitosis…True…False
6. Crossing over occurs before ___ ___ ___ ___ phase.
7. The dyads are pulled to opposite ends of the cell by ____________ __________.
8. By the end of the first meiotic division there are ______ cells and the homologous chromosomes have been ________________ from one another.
9. The dyads (chromosomes) line up at a new _____________ plate for the second meiotic division.
10. After this second metaphase, division continues as it would in ___________.
11. At the end there are four _________ nuclei. (Haploid means the chromosome number has been reduced from 46 to ______ so that the baby will get _____ chromosomes from the father and _____ from the mother).
12. These cells would produce four different __________ or one nuclei of the ______.
Take the quiz, I know it all!
13. What key event occurs only in meiosis and not in mitosis?
14. The end result of meiosis is what ?
15. Gregor Mendel found that individual traits are determined by discrete factors known as __________.
Click on Genes come on pairs on the right.
16. From his experiments, Mendel reasoned that pure-bred plants must have ______ copies of the same gene for each trait.
Click on Genes don’t blend on the right.
17. What color were the offspring when Mendel crossed (mated) yellow-seeded pea plants with green-seeded pea plants?
Click on Sex cells have one set6 of chromosomes; body cells have two on the right.
18. The full chromosome number [what number?_____] is restored when _________ and ______ unit.
Click on Chromosomes carry genes on the right.
19. Since white-eyed trait was only in the male fruit flies, Morgan and his students concluded that white-eyed is a ______ – __________ recessive trait. The gene for eye color must be physically located on the X ________________.
20. Go through the other links on the right of this web site and list three new things you learn.
21. Write a paragraph about what you learned today.